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Hi answer for Q no. 18 is by integrating the integrand f(x)f'(x)dx we get (f^2)(x)/2| with limits to substitute as a to b. so, the integral equal to ((f(b))^2-(f(a))^2)/2=0, because f(a)=0, f(b)=0.
note:-It's not an improper integral. integral is called improper only when one or both of the limits are infinity.
I do not the know answer to the second question. But if you come to know please do post it (with explanation).
Thanks.
cheers,
Siva Nagi
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