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#2 (permalink) |
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So many things to do...
Forum Admin
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: USA
Posts: 8,303
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Great question!!
Yes, subject-verb inversion can occur in many places. Inversion has to do with verbs (since the subject goes before the verb), so it can occur anywhere we have a verb. If we use inversion in a subordinate clause, however, the sentence would be somewhat difficult to understand, but still grammatically correct. Look at these examples:
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#3 (permalink) |
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Trying to make mom and pop proud
Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 19
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Re: Subject-Verb Inversion?
Hi, everybody!
I was taught if there is an emphatic "carrying the sentence stress" auxiliary in any clause (both matrix or subordinate) then the subject-auxiliary inversion is possible, any truth to that? (just as in your example, Erin, can it depend on the sentence stress?) thanks... |
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#4 (permalink) |
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Trying to make mom and pop proud
Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 19
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Re: Subject-Verb Inversion?
me again,
the term itself "subject-verb inversion" is not that accurate, as only the auxiliaries (modals, aspectuals, dummy do and passives) can undergo inversion. The main verbs do not invert with the subject. |
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