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Dear Erin and others,
I always feel confused with "none of the...".
According to "TOEFL CLIFFs" book, "none" can take either a singular or plural verb depending on the noun which follows it.
For instance:
"None of the couterfeit money has been found."
and
"None of the students have finished the exam yet"
But, According to the "TOEFL CBT EXAM KAPLAN", "none" always takes a singular verb, whether followed by a plural or a noncount noun.
The following are the given examples:
"None of the dogs belongs to me."
and
"None of the tea in this store is fresh"
Why is there such a contradiction? which one do I have to follow in Toefl exams???
Any explanations would be appreciated.
Thanks a milion
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