please answer pharmacy revision questions.

[tresa30]

Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is
responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?
CYP1A2
CYP2C9
CYP2D6
CYP3A4
CYP51


Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
Kidney
Liver
Blood
Heart

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson
syndrome?
Valproic acid
Quinidine
Isoniazid
Ethosuximide


Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?
Digitalis
Niacin
Tetracycline
Fluoroquinolones

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?
Cataracts
Hypotension
Psychosis
Acne

please answer these important questions very useful for the fpge exam.
hello friends.

can anybody please help us in answering these questions .




Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
Propafenone
Disopyramide
Aminodarone
Quinidine

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?
A) It will not occur in the absence of oxygen.
B) It directly produces carbon dioxide and water.
C) It converts fatty acids to acetate units.
D) It produces energy.


The alternate complement cascade differs from the classical complement cascade by:
A) its appearance only in certain human ethnic racial groups.
B) causing lysis of bacterial cells.
C) being initiated directly by certain bacterial toxins and venoms.
D) requiring an immunoglobulin-antigen complex to initiate the process.


GBL, GHB, & BD are members of a family of compounds which are often referred to as
"date rape drugs". They may cause which of the following serious hazards?
A) Low respiratory rate
B) Immunosuppression
C) CNS stimulation
D) Tachycardia
5 of 65
Neisseria meningitidis usually enters the body through the:
A) skin.
B) urethra.
C) nasopharynx.
D) intestinal tract.
7 of 65
A common vector for insertion of the gene into a microoganism to produce
biotechnology products on today�s market is a:
A) virus.
B) plasmid.
C) silicon chip.
D) monoclonal antibody


9 of 65
For the reaction below, the concentration of ES is at �steady state�when:
A) k1([E] + [s]) + k-2([E] + [P]) = [ES] (k-1+ k2).
B) [ES] (k-1+ k2) = ([E] + [s])k1= ([E] + [P])k-2.
C) (k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][s] + k-2[E][P].
D) (k-1+ k2) [ES] = k1[E][s] = k-2[E][P].
10 of 65
The reaction shown below is an example of which of the following?
A) Aldol condensation
B) Michael addition
C) Mannich reaction
D) Transesterification
11 of 65
A water soluble prodrug of a water insoluble alcohol is the:
A) acetic acid.
B) palmitic acid.
C) succinic acid.
D) sodium hemisuccinate.
12 of 65
Curves A and B below show the concentration vs time profiles of two patients who
are taking vancomycin 1 hour after receiving infusions of 1 g of a drug. The
difference between the two profiles is most likely due to:
A) normal subject-to-subject variability.
B) end-stage renal disease in patient
C) failure to control the level of patient activity.
D) administration of different products that have different bioavailabilities.


15 of 65
Mean particle diameter is frequently NOT useful for predicting surface area of a
powder sample because:
I. surface area is related to the square of particle radius.
II. particles may be highly porous.
III. particle shape may not remain constant as a function of
particle size.
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III
16 of 65
How many milligrams per day of penicillin V potassium are required to administer
the same dose of penicillin as 1500 mg per day of penicillin G sodium?
(Penicillin G sodium: 1 mg represents 1667 U of penicillin. Penicillin V
potassium: 1 mg represents 1530 U of penicillin.)
A) 1377
B) 1500
C) 1634
D) 1842
18 of 65
Rifampin exerts its action on bacterial cells by inhibiting:
A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity.
B) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.
C) lipid biosynthesis.
D) cytochrome P-450.
19 of 65
A structural analog of an intermediate in a physiological metabolic pathway that
acts by replacing the natural substrate and thus blocking the biosynthesis of a
physiologically-important substance is called an:
A) antimetabolite.
B) antagonist.
C) antisense molecule.
D) antigen.
20 of 65
Respiration in mammalian cells is an important function performed by:
A) Golgi bodies.
B) the endoplasmic reticulum.
C) chloroplasts.
D) mitochondria.


Celecoxib s interaction with a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor �[CYP2C9] will
result in:
A) decreased toxicity.
B) decreased effectiveness.
C) increased half-life.
D) increased bioavailability.
22 of 65
Chlordiazepoxide, which has the structure shown below on the left, is inactivated
by ultraviolet light, while diazepam, which has the structure shown below on the
right, is not. Which functional group is involved in chlordiazepoxide's
inactivation?
A) N-Oxide
B) 5-Phenyl
C) 2-One
D) Amide
23 of 65
The area under the curve of plasma concentration vs time is 8 mcg�h/mL for a 100
mg dose of a drug when it is given IV. The area under the curve for a 250 mg dose
of the same drug is 9 mcg�h/mL when the drug is given PO. What fraction of the
oral dose was absorbed?
A) 0.35
B) 0.40
C) 0.45
D) 0.50
24 of 65
Toxicogenetic differences that cause atypical responses to poisoning can generally
be traced to individual differences in:
A) absorption.
B) distribution.
C) metabolism.
D) elimination.
25 of 65
Which of the following generally decreases the aqueous solubility of a compound?
A) Changing a straight-chain alkyl group to a branched-chain alkyl group
B) Preparing a chemical derivative or analog that has a lower melting point
C) Converting an acid to its salt
D) Converting a salt form of a drug to its free base


A noncompetitive antagonist will shift a dose versus response curve to the:
A) right with constant maximal efficacy.
B) right with lowered maximal efficacy.
C) left with constant maximal efficacy.
D) left with lowered maximal efficacy.
28 of 65
Which of the following statements about petrolatum is true?
A) It causes a high incidence of hypersensitivity reactions.
B) It tends to become rancid quickly.
C) It contains ingredients that irritate mucous membranes.
D) It should not be used to treat weeping lesions.
29 of 65
Contamination of nonsterile ophthalmic solutions is most commonly by:
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Candida.
D) Bacillus.
30 of 65
What two structures are connected by the eustachian tube?
A) Cochlea and auditory nerve
B) Eardrum and ossicles
C) External ear and tympanic membrane
D) Middle ear and nasopharynx
31 of 65
An abdominal infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis would be treated most
effectively by:
A) amoxicillin.
B) aztreonam.
C) clindamycin.
D) ciprofloxacin.


During the establishment of a pricing policy, the pharmacy manager's long-term
financial objective should be to maximize:
A) profits.
B) sales volume.
C) product turnover.
D) return on investment.
35 of 65
Medicare is a program that is sponsored and administered by:
A) the federal government to provide health care for poor people.
B) state governments to provide health care for poor people.
C) the federal government to provide health care for elderly people.
D) state governments to provide health care for elderly people.
36 of 65
An economic market that has one seller and many buyers is referred to as:
A) a pure monopoly.
B) pure competition.
C) monopolistic competition.
D) oligopolistic competition.
37 of 65
Which of the following has occurred in the United States due to the increasing
number of physicians?
A) Physicians' salary growth has decreased.
B) Pharmacists' salary growth has increased.
C) The length of patients' hospital stay has increased.
D) Enrollment in medical schools has increased.
38 of 65
A patient taking a bulk-forming laxative should NOT be told:
A) to drink plenty of fluids.
B) to mix the product with fluid before ingestion.
C) to consult a physician if constipation persists for more than 1 week.
D) that the product will produce a bowel movement within 4 to 6 hours.
39 of 65
Urinary tract infections among incontinent patients are best prevented by:
A) administering urinary tract analgesics.
B) changing IV catheters a minimum of every 48 hours.
C) administering an oral antibiotic such as penicillin G.
D) limiting the time an indwelling bladder catheter is in place.
40 of 65
A preparation for a Schedule III substance is written March 15 and dispensed April
30. Authorized refills are NOT permitted after:
A) June 14.
B) June 29.
C) September 14.
D) September 29.
41 of 65
Which of the following statements about Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
programs is true?
A) They are pilot programs funded through a fee-for-service plan.
B) They are funded only through federal funds.
C) They are funded only through state funds.
D) They are funded through a prepaid program.
42 of 65
Epidemiology studies show that first degree relatives of a patient with breast
cancer have a two to three-fold increase in risk of cancer in comparison to the
general population. The risk ratio for these relatives compared to non-relatives
is therefore:
A) 1/2 to 1/3.
B) 2 to 3.
C) 7 to 8.
D) 200 to 300.


Methotrexate induced severe bone marrow suppression can be prevented by
concomitant administration of:
A) leucovorin.
B) folic acid.
C) nicotinamide.
D) nicotinic acid.
44 of 65
Patients' perceptions of illness and their reactions to it are most influenced by
their:
A) cultural background.
B) pharmacist.
C) physician.
D) insurance plan.
45 of 65
A true statement regarding the effectiveness of dialysis in removing a drug from
systemic circulation is:
A) low molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed.
B) high molecular weight compounds are more readily dialyzed.
C) compounds with large volumes of distribution are more readily dialyzed.
D) highly lipid-soluble drugs are more readily dialyzed.
46 of 65
Which of the following groups of US health professionals has reportedly suffered
from decreased patient demand due to its emphasis on preventive care?
A) Dentists
B) Optometrists
C) Pharmacists
D) Physicians
47 of 65
The major complication of 131I therapy in the treatment of Graves' disease is:
A) radiation thyroiditis.
B) thyroid scan.
C) malignancy.
D) hypothyroidism.
48 of 65
Cystitis is diagnosed in a 24-year-old woman in the thirty-first week of
pregnancy. She has no known drug allergies. The pharmacist can appropriately
recommend treatment with:
A) co-trimoxazole DS, i bid for 10 days.
B) tetracycline, 250 mg, qid for 3 days.
C) amoxicillin, 250 mg, tid for 10 days.
D) ciprofloxacin, 250 mg, bid for 10 days.
49 of 65
The largest segment of total health-care expenditures is for:
A) medications.
B) hospital care.
C) nursing home care.
D) physician services.
50 of 65
Which of the following statements best represents medical information obtained
over the Internet?
A) The Food and Drug Administration regulates all drug information found on the
Internet
B) The Internet hosts a large number of high-quality medical resources; however,
the quality of information from some sites is questionable
C) Consumers seldom use the Internet to find medical information
D) All medical information available on the Internet is current and well
documented
51 of 65
Which of the following solutions would provide the most concentrated source of
calories?
A) 20% fat emulsion
B) 70% dextrose
C) 20% dextrose + 10% amino acids
D) 25% dextrose + 4.25% amino acids
52 of 65
Ingestion of petroleum distillates commonly results in:
A) chemical pneumonitis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) hepatic failure.
D) hallucinations.
53 of 65
The immunosuppression caused by cyclosporin therapy is increased by a drug
interaction with:
A) ketoconazole.
B) rifampin.
C) ibuprofen.
D) lbuterol.
54 of 65
The inflammatory response, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema, is due
primarily to the chemotaxis and migration of:
A) platelets.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) T lymphocytes.
55 of 65
The current laboratory test of choice for monitoring the effect of warfarin is:
A) international normalized ratio (INR).
B) partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
C) prothrombin time (PT).
D) whole blood clotting time.
56 of 65
Which of the following formulas best describes how third parties reimburse
pharmacies for prescription drug products?
A) 100% of Actual Acquisition Cost (AAC)
B) 100% of Average Wholesale Price (AWP)
C) AAC + a pre-determined percentage of AAC
D) AWP - a pre-determined percentage of AWP
57 of 65
Which of the following factors is NOT a basic component of the marketing mix?
A) Place
B) Price
C) Promotion
D) Performance
58 of 65
Health-related quality of life is what type of outcome?
A) Operational
B) Humanistic
C) Economic
D) Clinical
59 of 65
Which of the following infections becomes LESS common as children age into
adolescence?
A) Otitis media
B) Vertebral osteomyelitis
C) Meningococcal meningitis
D) Bacterial endocarditis
60 of 65
Two antiepileptic drugs are compared during a 6-month period. Frequency of
premedication seizures in the two patient groups are normally distributed and have
equal variances. What statistical test is appropriate for comparing seizure
frequency in the 2 groups? (No other extraneous variables are to be analyzed.)
A) Student's t-test
B) Chi-square test
C) Mann Whitney U-test
D) Wilcoxon rank sum test
61 of 65
The earliest sign of congestive heart failure is:
A) dyspnea.
B) hypertrophy.
C) angina pectoris.
D) myocardial infarction.
62 of 65
Which of the following may be useful as a marker of malnutrition?
A) a1-Acid glycoprotein
B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) C-reactive protein
D) Serum albumin
63 of 65
A patient known to have coronary artery disease suffers the onset of chest pain
while he is resting. This type of angina is described as:
A) chronic.
B) sedentary.
C) variant.
D) unstable.
64 of 65
The clear delineation of hypotheses is most important at what point in a research
project?
A) Before data collection begins
B) While data is being collected
C) After data is collected
D) After summary data is collected

[canadianinnyc]

Where are these questions from?
Some I can find the answers...and some not...

Please post any answers you know!

[hnks]

I am interested in finding the answer to the first question.
I have encountered that question before, it was posted earlier by Tom Riddle in one of the forums and the answer was CYP51.
I still do not understand how that enzyme is responsible for the bulk of phase 1 metabolism, anyone?

[canadianinnyc]

From Medline:
"Sterol 14alpha-demethylase (CYP51) is the most widely distributed of all members of the cytochrome P450 gene superfamily and the only CYP family found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. It is well known as a drug target for microbial pathogenic infections. Studies of CYP51 gene regulation have been carried out primarily in animals because its regulation is similar to those of other genes involved in the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway. The function of CYP51 has been studied widely throughout biology including in animals, plants, yeast/fungi, protozoa, and bacteria. The structure has been determined by X-ray crystallography for the soluble prokaryotic form of CYP51 from Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Together these studies provide the most detailed understanding of any single cytochrome P450 and this minireview summarizes this information."

So why haven't I heard about this CYP51 variant before???

[hnks]

This website has some answers to the questions including the first one.
Although there is no explanation.
(Q.9)
Practice Questions - Help your Exam Score with free Practice Test Questions

[hnks]

I will start by answering the first 5.
1.CPY51
2. liver
3. Ethosuxcimide
4. fluroroquinolones
5. hypotension

PLease correct me if I am wrong.
Let someone else take the lead for the next 5 or 10

[canadianinnyc]

6. quinidine and disopyramide are class IA anti-arrythmics
7. Glycolsysis produces energy.
8. D) requiring an immunoglobulin-antigen complex to initiate the process
9. Date rape drugs cause respiratory depression
10. nasopharynx - as a result of inhaled respiratory secretions, usu from infected person sneezing or coughing..

On to the next person for the next few!

[hnks]

Disagree with 8.
I find the answer:
C) being initiated directly by certain bacterial toxins and venoms.

"The alternative pathway is triggered by spontaneous C3 hydrolysis directly due to the breakdown of the thioester bond via condensation reaction (C3 is mildly unstable in aqueous environment) to form C3a and C3b. It does not rely on a pathogen-binding antibodies like the other pathways" wIKI

[canadianinnyc]

Thanks, hnks.

this is what I found on wiki:

The alternative pathway of the complement system is an innate component of the immune system's natural defense against infections which can operate without antibody participation. As such, it is an evolutionarily older complement activation pathway than the classical complement pathway.
The alternative pathway is one of three complement pathways that opsonizes and kills pathogens. The alternative pathway does not require a specific antibody to commence, and so can be effective much faster than if antibody synthesis had to take place, as in the classical pathway.

I see I answered the question backwards...sorry...classical complement system requires specific antibody [D], alternative pathway can be activated directly [C].

My apologies.

[tolyany]

hnks,
i asked Dr.Voldemort for his answer about this question

hnks said
Disagree with 8.
I find the answer:
C) being initiated directly by certain bacterial toxins and venoms.

"The alternative pathway is triggered by spontaneous C3 hydrolysis directly due to the breakdown of the thioester bond via condensation reaction (C3 is mildly unstable in aqueous environment) to form C3a and C3b. It does not rely on a pathogen-binding antibodies like the other pathways" wIKI


he told me that the question need the difference between Alternative to Classical respectively so the answer will be (c) as he answered as Alternative Complennet related to innate immunity

about answer (d) it will be right if the question need the difference between classical to alternative respectively .... so, classical relate to Acquired immunity

thx