Hmm..Looks like A to me. For random selections from a known range, there must be a way to find the probability.
With stmt 2, we have no information vwyz so imo can't find the probability.
But I think I am missing the point behind this question.
What is the probability that (u/v)/w * (x/y)/z = 1 ?
or (ux/vy)/wz =1 ?
ux/vy = wz
or ux = vywz ?
we know that the product of vywz is an integer (all 4 are randomly selected from the first 100 integers), but we dont know anything about u and x........INSUFFICIENT
Median of 100 consecutive integers is NOT an integer, so we know that ux is not an integer
We know nothing about vywz .......INSUFFICIENT
Combining 1 and 2,
vywz is an integer and ux is NOT an integer, so there is NO WAY
that vywz=ux !....SUFFICIENT
Answer is C
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