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Old 2008 December 29th, 02:26 PM   #1 (permalink)
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beverage

On the first day, a company sells orange beverage mixed with the same amount of orange juice and water. On the next day, the company adds the water twice as much as the amount of orange juice sold on the first day. If the company sells a glass of the beverage at $0.6 on the first day, how much is the price on the next day if the company get the same revenue?

please explain

oa
SPOILER: not sure 0,4
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Old 2008 December 30th, 05:21 AM   #2 (permalink)
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First day
50/50 Orange Juice and Water $.60 sold on the first day
Therfore
Orange Juice is given $.30 and Water is given $.30
Ox Wx X = $.30

Second day
Water is now W2x

So $.60 + $.30 = $.90

On a note, I probably missed something or did something wrong this question seems very easy and Im very tired
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Old 2009 January 6th, 05:12 AM   #3 (permalink)
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I feel like I am pretty good with the GMAT, but I would like help on the GMAT maths section. My verbal will be good enough.
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Old 2009 January 6th, 06:57 AM   #4 (permalink)
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i'm confused here.
shouldn't the water come free?
Thus you charge $0.6 for 0.5units OJ which costs x/unit
Next day you have 0.(3) units OJ at the same price x/unit
The first day revenue $0.6*2*units sold-x*units (2-dilution factor)
The second day revenue R*3*units sold-x*units (assuming they sell equal amounts?)
0.6*2*u-x*u=R*3*u-x*u
0.6*2=R*3
R=0.6*2/3=$0.4

should not diluted OJ be cheaper?
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Old 2009 January 9th, 03:01 PM   #5 (permalink)
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no its not free!
fisrt day orange - x
water - x
2x=0,6 (0,6 revenue)
second day water - 2x
orange -x / 3x=0.6 (revenue is the same)

so x is 0,2
what i am doind wrong please explain
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Old 2009 January 10th, 02:15 AM   #6 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by marianha View Post
no its not free!
fisrt day orange - x
water - x
2x=0,6 (0,6 revenue)
second day water - 2x
orange -x / 3x=0.6 (revenue is the same)

so x is 0,2
what i am doind wrong please explain
We cannot assume that price for H2O and OJ are the same.
So let X be price for unit H2O
Let Y be price for unit of OJ
Let V be the volume of each sold on day1
Let Z be the price of the mix on day2
then
0.6*(Vx+Vy)=R, where R is the revenue
on day2
Z*(2*V*x+V*y)=R
form
0.6*(x+y)=Z*(2x+y)
Z=0.6*(x+y)/(2x+y)
We have 3 variables in 2 equations, not solvable IMO.
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Old 2009 January 10th, 02:35 AM   #7 (permalink)
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One more though...
The revenue "is income that a company receives from its normal business activities" (Wikipedia).
Thus it does not depend on expenses (as opposed to profit).
So R1=V1*0.6 (where V1 is volume on day1)
R1=V2*X
V2=1.5*V1 (by definition)
1.5*V1*X=V1*0.6
1.5*X=0.6
X=0.4
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