Queen09 Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 Out of a pack of 52 cards one is lost; from the remaining of the pack, two cards are drawn and are found to be spades. Find the chance that the missing card is a spade. a. 11/50 b. 11/49 c. 10/49 d 10/50 OA to follow. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shooter Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 11/50 Let the one lost is spade and the other two that are taken out are also spades. We are left over with 11 spades in the pack. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Itsmyturn Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 IMO, Card was lost before the 2 other cards were picked so the chance that the card is a spade will be 13/52 = 1/4 I know it is not one of the options Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Queen09 Posted August 22, 2008 Author Share Posted August 22, 2008 Itsmyturn hint for you ... "two cards are drawn and are found to be spades" is just a distraction. It is as good as a pack of cards with 50 cards, with 11 spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shooter Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 I am on a second thought now: Queen, If 3 cards have been removed then the denominator should consist of (52-3) = 49 right? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sanjeev_sharma Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 IMO it is C = 10/49, since we are left with 10 spades if one of the spade is missiong and two other are drawn from the pack. The remaing cards in the pack = 51-2 =49. So the probabilty = 10/49 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Makumajon Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 At the point when the card was lost, the card could be any one of the 52 cards, and the probability that it was spade is 13/52. Now, we have drawn another 2 cards and looked at them. Hmm, 2 spades! SO, our prediction about the lost card changes and becomes stronger: we are certain that the lost card is any one of the [remaining] (52-2) or 50 cards,[among which there are also (13-2) or 11 spades]. Therefore, P=11/50 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Queen09 Posted August 22, 2008 Author Share Posted August 22, 2008 Makumajon You explained it so well.. wish we could borrow your brain for one day ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Makumajon Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 Thanks. Just pray I can contribute to this forum for many days. I have not planned to sit for GMAT, but I enjoy the great discussions and learning here. Because I love to explore the beauty of mathematics, especially in the area of number theory, and the lofty grammar rules. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shooter Posted August 22, 2008 Share Posted August 22, 2008 Nice Explanation! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Storm Posted August 23, 2008 Share Posted August 23, 2008 Hi, I had a Question: Lets take a simple problem first to illustrate what I exactly mean: We roll a Dice. We get an even number. WHat is the probability that it is prime. Initially, the sample set is (1,2,3,4,5,6). Therefore the prob of getting a prime number is 3/6 = 1/2 However, once we get an even number, the prob changes to 1/3 (2,4,6). Only 2 is prime. Here, the key is that the prob changed because the number of sample outcomes became less (3 as opposed to 6 before). In the problem being discussed in the thread, I don't understand why finding 2 spades would change anything. Look at it another way. 1 card is lost. What is the prob of finding 2 (or even 3 spades). It obviously is 1 because even if the lost card is a spade, we are sure to find 3 spades in the pack. Essentially, this extra statement has changed nothing. Its something like saying we roll a STANDARD dice and we get a natural number between 1 and 10(Don't we already know that as it can range from 1-6). Does it change anything. No. Then why should our finding 2 spades (which is a given as only 1 card is lost) changing the probability. Yes, had it said 13 cards are found to be spades, then the prob would go down to 0 as a spade was certainly not stolen. Could somebody explain if I am missing somethin here. In light of this I do think that the prob should still be 1/4. I know, its not an option, but that still doesn't mean anything. Normally such cases are calculated as follows P(F|E) * P(E)= P(E n F) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Queen09 Posted August 23, 2008 Author Share Posted August 23, 2008 See.. I think I can reframe this question : Imagine a deck of 50 cards (13 diamonds, 13 hearts , 13 clubs, 11 spades). What is the probablity of picking one spade? I think it's the language of Q that is confusing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Storm Posted August 23, 2008 Share Posted August 23, 2008 After you have 11 spades its fine. However, the card was lost before you found 2 spades. If your Q is we find 2 spades and then we lose a card, what is the prob that a pade was lost, yes it'd be 11/50. No doubt. But to find 2 spades makes no diff (acc to me. I really am not sure if I am right here.I am sticking my neck out!!) to a card that has already been lost. In fact I'd be surprised if you didnt find 12 spades in the deck coz only 1 card was lost. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Makumajon Posted August 23, 2008 Share Posted August 23, 2008 Of course, finding two spades changes the probability from 1/4. Because the problem asks to find the probability after you have drawn two spades, not before. So, you are calculating a dependent probability, not a free probability. As the successive events unfold, you would get new probabilities for an outcome because you are calculating probability of that outcome based on new circumstances/evidences. And the formula P(F|E) * P(E)= P(E n F)is nothing but the formula for a dependent probability. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Storm Posted August 23, 2008 Share Posted August 23, 2008 Guys, its just that I don't take anything on face value. Obvious things are not very 'obvious' to me. So, I decided to go in for a more rigorous approach. Let Event E = Finding 2 spades after 1 card is lost. Event F = The event that the lost card is a spade. Then event E n F = event that after pulling 2 spades from the pack, the lost card was a spade. now P(F|E) = P(EnF)/P(E) P(EnF) = 1/4 * 12c2/51c2 (the 2 probabilities are independent) P(E) = (1/4 * 12c2/51c2) + (3/4 * 13c2/51c2) essentially states that prob of finding 2 spades after losing a spade + prob of finding 2 spades after losing a non spade. Events mutually exclusive and therefore are added. now just divide p(EnF)/P(E) and we do indeed get 11/50. I can lay my fears and doubts to rest!! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bose Posted August 23, 2008 Share Posted August 23, 2008 like makumajon's expln Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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