dkpbus Posted December 10, 2002 Share Posted December 10, 2002 The herbicide Oryzalin was still being produced in 1979, three years after the wives of workers producing the chemical in Rensselaer, New York, were found to have borne children with heart defects or miscarriages, and none of their pregnancies was normal. A to have borne children with heart defects or miscarriages, and none of their pregnancies was B to gave had children born with heart defects or miscarriages, and none of the pregnancies was C either to have had children with heart defects or miscarriages, without any of their pregnancies being D either to have had miscarriages or to have borne children with heart defects; none of the pregnancies was E either to have had miscarriages or children born with heart defects, without any of their pregnancies being In this question I think none of the answers are correct. Correct answer is D, I also chose D as other answers are flawed seriously. But D is also incorrect because in following sentence none of the pregnancies was Don't you think verb should be plural because None is treated as plural. Any thought ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dreamofwaking79 Posted December 10, 2002 Share Posted December 10, 2002 None is one of the indefinite pronouns that is singular or plural. There used to be a old rule that defined that none is less than zero so it inherits a singular verb. However it is used in different context many times, and I would agree with you that since 'pregnancies' is plural, it should take a plural verb, but with the choices given...D is definetly the best answer, and that is what ETS will look for. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tsdvj Posted December 16, 2002 Share Posted December 16, 2002 This is from ARCO: Always singular: everyone, each, either, neither, someone, somebody, nobody, anyone, anybody, everybody, one and no one (none) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dkpbus Posted December 17, 2002 Author Share Posted December 17, 2002 But None Takes plural verb if followed by a plural noun Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
trybest Posted December 20, 2002 Share Posted December 20, 2002 hi dk, see, none is singular no matter what.Aslo, I feel none cannot be use with a singular subject at all. "none" by its very meaning means "not one". i.e, not one of a bunch. The "bunch", therefore needs to be in plural form. Am i making sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Erin Posted December 20, 2002 Share Posted December 20, 2002 Originally posted by tsdvj This is from ARCO: Always singular: everyone, each, either, neither, someone, somebody, nobody, anyone, anybody, everybody, one and no one (none) Arco is wrong. Kaplan also says this in their GMAT800 book; Kaplan is wrong also. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Erin Posted December 20, 2002 Share Posted December 20, 2002 I just can't resist pointing out: Originally posted by dkpbus In this question I think none of the answers are correct. none of the pregnancies was Don't you think verb should be plural because None is treated as plural.So you do know the rule! :p Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Erin Posted December 20, 2002 Share Posted December 20, 2002 Originally posted by dreamofwaking79 None is one of the indefinite pronouns that is singular or plural. There used to be a old rule that defined that none is less than zero so it inherits a singular verb. However it is used in different context many times, and I would agree with you that since 'pregnancies' is plural, it should take a plural verb, but with the choices given...D is definetly the best answer, and that is what ETS will look for. This is a very nice and knowledgeable explanation. I hope you will post here often!! :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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