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Thread: none of my friends

  1. #1
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    none of my friends

    As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in last week's newspaper.
    (A) none of my friends have been able to solve
    (B) none of my friends was able to solve
    (C) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
    (D) none of my friends has been able to solve
    (E) nobody among my friends have solved

    Cheers

  2. #2
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    The answer is A.

    It uses the correct verb "have" and the present perfect tense since the action continues into tthe present.

    Please post the Official Answer.

  3. #3
    An Urch Guru Pundit Swami Sage maverick312's Avatar
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    Imo A

  4. #4
    An Urch Guru Pundit Swami Sage
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    imoA

    As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in last week's newspaper.
    (A) none of my friends have been able to solve
    (B) none of my friends was able to solve
    (C) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
    (D) none of my friends has been able to solve
    (E) nobody among my friends have solved

    Just to add...
    For SANAM pronouns - Look at the object of the "OF" construction to determine the "number" of subject i.e. singular or plural
    e.g.
    Some of the money was stolen from my wallet. ("money" - singular noun requires "was" - Singular Verb)

    Some of the documents were stolen from the bank. ("documents" - plural noun requires "were" - plural verb)

    S-Some
    A-Any
    N-None
    A-All
    M-Most

    In this case:
    As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in last week's newspaper.

    "friends" is plural noun hence usage of "have" is correct.

  5. #5
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    Thank you for your answer guys!

    I agree with all of you "A".
    However, the answer is "D" This question is from KAPLAN GMAT 800, which I just bought yesterday.

    Here is its explanation:

    None is singular (like every or everyone) and have been is plural. Singular subjects need singular verbs, so we can immediately eliminate (A) and (E). As for (B), Has been beats was. Even though they're both singular, there is no valid reason to replace the original verb. Has been is in the perfect tense and, as such, describes an action that began in the past and continues into the present. The beginning of the sentence (As of this morning) indicates that we're dealing with this sort of situation: the friends have been working on the puzzle, still seem top be working on the puzzle, and are not able to solve it. Was describes an action that took place entirely in the past and therefore is inappropriate considering the beginning of the sentence. So much for (B). As for (C), there's nothing wrong with None that would requires its substitution with Not one (and none is an elision of not one anyway). That leaves (D).

    From Manhattan SC, its states that "SANAM" pronouns need to be agree with object after "of", as skarya mentioned.

    Who should we believe "Manhattan" or "Kaplan"? or Are there any exceptions about the use of "SANAM" words?

    Need Gurus here!

  6. #6
    An Urch Guru Pundit Swami Sage
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    Quote Originally Posted by Aimhighest View Post
    Who should we believe "Manhattan" or "Kaplan"? or Are there any exceptions about the use of "SANAM" words?

    Need Gurus here!
    I agree with you, we need Bob/Erin to educate us, especially after digging more on "none" usage at http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/none

    Usage Note: It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word n, “one,” but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today. Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story.

    ....

    another input - http://www.sentencecorrection.com/fo...+of+my+friends

    Last edited by skarya; 11-12-2006 at 02:14 AM.

  7. #7
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    Just what I need 2 days before exams!!! I think I'll stick with A in this one.
    koshish karne walon ki haar nahin hoti

  8. #8
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    Great information skarya!

    I am not sure whether there are any questions in Official Guide that are similar to this one. If anybody knows that, please kindly post the question.

    I hope that we can finally clear this confusion.

    SOS

  9. #9
    Trying to make mom and pop proud
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    IMO D,none is always singular...hence it is none of my friends has been able to solve.

  10. #10
    I am on a Highway to Hell animesh's Avatar
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    What a question to begin test magic with??

    I agree that both A and D are the correct answer. Thanks Skarya and Aimhighest for thy post
    Catch me here

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