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Old 2007 December 13th, 01:12 AM   #11 (permalink)
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yup. You can see it in the Battle's book about Real Analysis.
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Old 2008 November 6th, 06:14 AM   #12 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lime View Post
Hi! That is really buffling question for me as well, but I cannot understand another variant:

*by the way the question was about (0,1) not [0,1].

WHY? If f=tan(Pi/2*(x-0.5)) so in that case we have (0,1)->(-inf, +inf) and it is not bounded? Where am I wrong?
lime, (0,1) doesnt map to (-inf,+inf) with that function. the range is (-inf,1). Substitute x=1 and you will get f= tan (pi/2*1/2)= tan (pi/4)=1.
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Old 2008 November 6th, 08:13 AM   #13 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by anushrimali View Post
lime, (0,1) doesnt map to (-inf,+inf) with that function. the range is (-inf,1). Substitute x=1 and you will get f= tan (pi/2*1/2)= tan (pi/4)=1.
My bad. I meant f(x)=(Pi)(x-1/2).
Anyway, I understand where I was wrong. So never mind.
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