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Thread: HELP_ calculation

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    HELP_ calculation

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    1)1 tablespoonful of thioridazine solution ( 100mg/cc) is diluted with water up to 1 quart, what is the % of drug in the final solution?

    a)1.25%
    b)0.005%
    c)0.156%
    d)2.75%
    Answer: c..please explain how to get it?

    2)The recommended therapeutic dose for Levaquin I.V is 7mg/kg/day. The drug has elimination half life of 12hrs. Volume of distribution is 1.2l/kg. What would be the plasma concentration of the drug.? Pt wt 170lbs. What would be the initial plasma concentration of drug in mg/ml?

    a)10.11 mcg/ml
    b)23.12 mcg/ml
    c)5.833 mcg/ml
    d)33.23 mcg/ml

    Answer: c

    3)The recommended plasma concentration of cipro is 20 mcg/ml. Elimination half life 6hrs. volume distribution 0.5 l/kg. pt weight 155lbs. what would be the rate of infusion in mg/min/

    a) 2.25 mg/min
    b)5.60 mg/min
    c)1.35mg/min
    d)1.1mg/min

    Answer :c

    Please solve these qs and explain how u solved it.
    Thanks.

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    1)1 quart is 960 cc:1 table spoon is 15 ml.
    put the values in you will get C

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    thank you!!

    Thank you. I got it.

    !5ml----1cc=100mg,Hence, 1.5gm/960*100=0.156%I was calculating as 1 teaspoon.I should be careful.

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    Hi
    the answer for 3rd question is
    Rate of infusion=CssxCL
    Css=steady state concentration, Cl=clearance
    Cl=Vd x Ke
    =0.5l/kg, for 155lbs it is 35.23litres,Ke=0.693/t1/2
    Ke=0.693/6=0.1155
    Cl=35.23x0.1155=4.068litres/hour

    we need to calculate dose for doing Css. Vd=Dose/Cp
    Vd=35.23=dose/20mcg/ml 20mcg=0.02mg/ml
    since Vd is in litres, 0.02x1000=20 mg in litres

    Dose=35.23x20=704.6mg

    Css=Dose/Vd= 704.6/35.23=20mg/litres

    Rate of infusion-=CssxCl=20x4.068litres/hour=81.36mg/hour
    as the answer inminutes, you divide by 60 to get 1.35mg/min

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    Hi
    The answer for 2nd question is


    Vd=1.2l/kg, so 170lbs is 77.27kg
    so 1.2 x 77.27=92.72litres or 92720 ml

    Vd=Dose/Cp
    Cp=plasma concentration Dose/Vd
    =dose=7mg/kgx77.27kg=540.89mg is 0.54089mcg
    Cp=0.54089/92720
    =5.833mcg/ml

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    Thanks Sunitha siva for the explanation of problems. I understood.

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    Please somebody help with Math:


    1)5% w/v solution of phenol is diluted by adding 200ml to 4 liters water. What is the strength of the final product?

    2)The concentration of codeine in cough syrup is 65mg/30ml. How many ml of diluent should be added to 120 ml of this syrup to obtain a pediatric dos of 1mg/ml?

    3)What is the new strength of a solution prepared by diluting with water , 1 pint of a 1:750 strength solution to i gallon?

    A)) A patient has bradyarrythmia. Choose the drug which will not worsen pt condition?
    a)verapamil
    b)sotalol
    c)digoxin
    d)amlodipine
    e)Diltiazem.

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    1). 5% => 5g -- 100 ml
    ? -- 200 ml => we have 10 g in 200 ml, which will be diluted to 4litters
    10g in 4000 ml
    ? g in 100 ml => so the strength of the final solution is 1000/4000= 0.25 => 0.25 %

    2). 65mg in 30 ml => we have 260 mg in 120 ml, to obtain a concentration of 1mg/ml we need 260 ml
    so we need 140 ml of diluent to add to 120 ml of the syrup.

    3). 1 pint of 1/750 will be diluted to 1 gallon ( 8 pints )
    1/750/8 = 1/6000

    4). D​, The only drug in the list that does not lower HR is amlodipine

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    1)5% solution is diluted to 200ml so 200ml will have 5g...please explain? All the answers are correct.

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    5% means 5g in 100 ml, so in 200ml you have 10g. When you dilute it to 4000ml, it means that you have 10g in 4000ml. To get the % strength you have to find how many g are in 100ml
    10 g -- 4000ml
    Xg -- 100ml. => X= 10x100/4000=0.25
    X= 0.25%

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