ssang Posted March 23, 2008 Share Posted March 23, 2008 Hi I'm very very confused whether the words does or have come before or after the noun. See the examples.. French wines taste better than Australian wines do. - correct French wines taste better than do Australian wines - correct Are the following correct? Please also explain 1. France has more good wine than does Australia 2. France has more good wine than Australia does 3. France has more good wine than does any other country 4. France has more good wine than any other country does 5. France has more good wine than Australia have Under what circumstances are the "have /does" put behind or in front the noun? can someone please clarify the rule? Thankss! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ssang Posted March 23, 2008 Author Share Posted March 23, 2008 guess i answered my own question!! :) for those who are interested, please see a similar explanation in the thread here http://www.www.urch.com/forums/gmat-sentence-correction/38515-she-runs-faster-than.html Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
narda Posted March 23, 2008 Share Posted March 23, 2008 Thank you ssang. The thread clarified a lot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ssang Posted March 23, 2008 Author Share Posted March 23, 2008 no probs!! :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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