gmat2013gmat Posted October 8, 2013 Share Posted October 8, 2013 If f(x)=(f(x−2))(f(x−1))(x) forx>0 and f(x)=1 for all x Part of the solution advises to fill in the first few terms: f(0) = 1 f(1) = 1 f(2) = f(1) * f(0) * 2 = 1 * 1 * 2 = 2 etc. However, I don't understand how they came to f(0) = 1, when I calculate it I get zero. here's my work f(0) = (f(0-1)*(f(0-1)(0) = 0...i know in the question stem it says that x>0 but how can you get 1 from f(0) when you fill in the function and get zero and not one...what am I doing wrong? Any input would be greatly appreciated. f(5 x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Brent Hanneson Posted November 10, 2013 Share Posted November 10, 2013 The question tells us that f(x)=1 for all x This is how the function f is defined. Cheers, Brent Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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