Questions that need answers

[lorliw]

Hello. Hope all is going well with everyones studies. I'm in the panic stage as I seem to be forgetting things no matter how many times I've read about it. In other words my mind is going blank!

I've come across some readings though that seem to contradict each other, or even within the reading itself which just confuses me. Also, the material I read may have had errors as well. If anyone knows the correct answer, just in case there are similar questions on the test, it would be appreciated. Think of this as a minitest for yourself?

 

1) Is ativan a short or intermediate acting drug?

2) Is amobarbital short or intermediate acting?

3) Are there 4 or 5 phases of clinical trials?

4) What are the routes that avoid first pass effect?

5) Is a lipoprotein considered a protein or a lipid?

6) Is the max peripheral IV for dextrose 10 or 15%. Or is it 10% for TPN and 15% if given alone?

7) What is the max dispersed phase concentration in an emulsion, 74% or 40-60%

8) Is a DEA number need for C2 or C2,3,4,5 rxs?

9) What is more toxic to humans, a gram positive exotoxin or a gram negative endotoxin?

10) Is K increased in metabolic acidosis? Is Co2 increased as well?

11) Is theophylline safe level 5- 15 or 5-20 units?

12) Is a microemulsion thermodynamcially stable or unstable?

13) Are rxs to be kept for 2 or 5 years?

14) An alpha error is set at 5%, does that mean it is significant if the value is greater than 5% or under 5%?

15) Are there 4 or 5 types of hypersensitivities?

16) Insulin injections can cause lipohypertrophy, dystrophy and atrophy?

17) What is the slowest step in tablets, dissolution or disintegration?

18) Hipaa, does the pharmacist still need pt to sign a written consent form?

19) Bblockers hypo or hyper glycemia?

20) Retrospective studies, can determine cause and effect or not?

21) FSH leads to spermatogenesis? LH leads to androgen production?

22) Does ionized mean protonated or unprotonated? Or does it depend if its an acid or a base?

23) Is Mg intra or extracellular? What about calcium?

24) Would you consider chlorthalidone, indapamide a thiazide diuretic? Would you consider thiazides as carbonic anyhydrase inhibitors?

25) Is vit a an antioxidant?

26) Is a slow acetylator for INH going to have more hepatoxicity than a fast acetylator?

27) Tylenol 1 susp, can you give out 120 ml or 240 ml?

28) Is arachadonic acid considered an EFA? Or just linoleic, linolinic (sp?)

29) What type of hypersentivity is diabetes considered?

30) Can you get ketoacidosis in DMtype 2 under severe stress?

31) Do you get 14 ATP per pyruvate or 2 ATP in oxidative phosphorylation?

32) Is allergic to sulfa, allergic to torsemide?

33) Misoprostol protect againts gastric ulcer or gastric/duodenal ulcer?

34) graves what type of hypersensitivity?

35) Do you have to give allopurinol with glass of water?

36) Is sucrose selfpreserving at 85% or 65%

37) Is indinavir or lopinavir the shortest acting?

38) Do you give sulfonamides in pregnancy? Septra?

39) Oral contraceptives cause vaginal yeast infec or not?

40) Carbapenems, concn or time dependant antibiotics?

41) Does osmolar value decrease or increase when the concn increases?

42) Does melting point decrease as concn increases?

43) Does vapor pressure increase as concn increases?

44) Does ARB act on AT1 or AT2 recepotrs

45) Methohemoglobinemia with nitrites? Nitrates?

46) Dolasetron/alosetron , are they indole or benzimidazoles?

47) Would you look for an RX from Canada in Martindales or Drug Fact and Comparisions?

48) NAc given for acetaminiphen toxicity, for a total of 17 doses which includes the loading dose, or for 18 doses ,( 17 mtn doses plus 1 LD)

49)Neostigmin duration of action 0.5-2hrs or 2-4 hrs?

50) What immunoglobulins released in type 3 hypersensitivity, IGg and IGm, or IGg and Ige?

51) IgM, 20% or 5-10% of antibodies?

52) Does down regulation pertain to agonists only, or can it be antagonists?

53) More drug metabolisim involving CYP3 or CYP2?

54) What type of hypersentivitiy for myexdema, graves, pernicious anemia, goodpastures, ms?

55) Xlinked agammaglobinemia linked to X chromosome, shows up only in men. Why? I thought men contained XY chromosomes, women XX

56)Demerol, mydriasis or miosis?

57) Are prostaglandins considered autocoids, eicosanoids or both?

58) Tetanus prone wound. If received full set of vaccinations between 5-10 years ago, would they need at TD shot?

59) If otc drug not pkged in tamperresistant pkging nor properly labelled as such, is it adulterated or misbranded?

60)Diuretics cause hypernatremia, Increased HC03, probably due to volume depletion, but at the same time as they increasing the urinary excretion of these?

[successfpgee]

Hi Lorli,

I think you will just do fine.

Don't get dishearted.

Perhaps if you read more and more now,it would help you.

Don't worry,just keep reading.

I will try to answer questions which a posted .

Thanks for posting for us.

Don't get tensed up.

Good luck to all dec 6th participants.

[nona1]

Hallo lorliw

just try to concentrat and you will be fine

for the questions 29 ,34

Diabetis type 1 is not hypersensitivty it is auto immune disease where body form antibodies that attack B ISLET cell

The same for graves disease antibodies attack TSH receptors.

[salmansiddiqui]

Can some one help me solving the question below.

 

The half life of a drug is 9 days.A single 0.5mg dose of the drug yields an (AUC) value of 408ng h/ml .In ng/ml ,what plasma level will result at steady state if this product is given once daily and is 77% bioavailable?

 

A solution initially contains methyl acetate(0.01M) and NAOH (0.01M).The solution is unbuffered and both reacting species are consumed.If the rate constant for this reaction at 25 c is 1.082L

[salmansiddiqui]

sorry here is the second question

 

A solution initially contains methyl acetate(0.01M) and NAOH (0.01M).The solution is unbuffered and both reacting species are consumed.If the rate constant for this reaction at 25 c is 1.082L/(mole * min).How many minutes will it take for the concentration of methyl acetate to fall to 0.0090M??

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[lorliw]

Hi. Thanks for your response successfpgee and nona 1. Im still trying to find the correct answers to these questions when I have time. Nona1 , I saw on wikipedia that graves is listed as a type 5 hypersensitivity, type 5 being rarely used, and really it can listed a subset of type 2. Manon listed it as a type 5 hypersensitivity as well. (question 260 in the 1000Q+A book).

 

Salmansiddique, the questions you asked are also listed in manon 1000

Q+A, number 689 for the first question and 688 for the 2nd, but just different values.

 

For your first question if following the example in 689 would yield 17ng/mL.

(AUC divided by dosing interval.)

 

For the second question I get an answer of 9.38 minutes

1 times 0.091 divided by (1.082 x (0.1)(.009))

 

Are these the right answers?

[salmansiddiqui]

lorliw

 

Thanks alot for your prompt reply.I ll check it and let you know if the answer is correct.

 

Thanks again

[singjuba]

hi Lorli,

Panic is ok, I .have gone into a stupor, but your post smacked me back into panic. THANKS

Answers,9 -gm -ve endo toxin, 8 all controlled drugs 4 parenteral routes,

13 regular 5 years controlled 2, 38 no, 39 yes, 42 mp increses with concn

hopefull answers are right but please check and assuring you that you will do well. Goodluck Dec 06 2008. See you at APHA conference SOON.. I wii attempt to answer the rest later.

[OzPharmacist]

Hi lorliw,

Here are my answers, don't know if they are correct, just what I think.

1. intermediate

2. intermediate

3.four

4.suppository, IV, IM, sublingual

5.contains both proteins and lipids

6.10%

7.most stable range is 30-60%. Theoretical maximum is 74%. So if amount of disperse phase approaches or exceeds 74% then phase inversion may occur

8.DEA required for all controlled substances i.e 2,3,4 and 5

10. K can be either increased or decreased depending on cause, CO2 is reduced

11. 5-20mcg/mL

12.thermodynamically stable in strict terms. However in broader terms micremulsions have included stable but thermodynamically unstable emulsions.

13. 2 years, although some states 5 years

15. four (type 5 only used smetimes usually in Britain as a distinction from Type 2)

16. yes

17. depends on drug solubility

18. no

19. beta blockers can mask signs of hypoglycaemia and can potentially increase blood glucose concentration and antagonise action of oral hypoglycaemics.

20. yes

21. yes

22. protanation is the addition of a proton to an atom , molecule or ion, ionised is when they gain or lose an electron, so it depends it it is an acid or base.

23. in intra and extracellular fluid. Mg is higher in intra, calcium higher in extra.

24.thiazide-related, not carbonic anhydrase inihibtors

25. debatable, possibly some antioxidant characteristics

26. fast as per CPR, but some studies show slow

28. yes

29. type 1 diabetes is type 2 sensitivity

30. rarely, when it does occur is a combination of relative insulin deficiency and increased secretion of glucagon in response to stress. eg. infection, tissue infarction or severe illness

31. 14, 2 ATP is from glycolysis

32. can be, best to avoid

33. both

34. 2

35. don't have to, but best to keep fluid intake up throughout day to prevent kidney stones

36. 65%

38. only if benefit outweighs risk

39. can do in some people, usually higher estrogens

40. time

44. AT1 receptors (blocks binding of angiotensin 2)

47. Martindale

48. LD plus 17 mtn doses

 

Hope this helps

All the best for the exam to everyone :)

[successfpgee]

Hi Lorliw,

I answerd few,Please let me know if there are any incorrect answers.

 

 

1)Is amobarbital short or intermediate acting?

Answer:Amobarbitol-intermdeiate,pheno barbitol-long,pentobarbitol-short,secobarbitol short

2)Are there 4 or 5 phases of clinical trials...i think only 4

3)What are the routes that avoid first pass effect

rectal,sublingual,buccal,

8)Is a DEA number need for C2 or C2,3,4,5 rxs

i think yes its needed for all Controlled substances.

9)What is more toxic to humans, a gram positive exotoxin or a gram negative endotoxin

Answer:Gram -ve endotoxins.

10) Is K increased in metabolic acidosis? Is Co2 increased as well?

ANswer:Hyperkalemia,Decreased Carbondioxide.(CO2)

11)Is a microemulsion thermodynamcially stable or unstable?

answer:Thermodynamically stable.

12)Are rxs to be kept for 2 or 5 years?

answer:2 years.

14) An alpha error is set at 5%, does that mean it is significant if the value is greater than 5% or under 5%?

answer:Could be more than 5% or less than 5%,if no mean difference i think its called gamma error

Type I error (also, α error, or false positive) and type II error (β error, or a false negative)

15)Are there 4 or 5 types of hypersensitivities?

I think its 4 only but i googled and found type V is there too.

16) Insulin injections can cause lipohypertrophy, dystrophy and atrophy?

answer:Lipohypertrophy.

17) What is the slowest step in tablets, dissolution or disintegration?

Answer:Dissolution.

18) Hipaa, does the pharmacist still need pt to sign a written consent form?

answer:I think yes along with patient.

note:When is it permissible for a pharmacist to give a family member a list of all medications filled for the whole family for tax purposes,WHEN

Generally with written consent of non-minor family members

19) Bblockers hypo or hyper glycemia?

Hyporglycemia(occurs when used in asthmatic patients)

NOTE:Hypoglycemia can occur with beta-blockade because b2-adrenoceptors normally stimulate hepatic glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and pancreatic release of glucagon, which work together to increase plasma glucose. Therefore, blocking b2-adrenoceptors lowers plasma glucose. b1-blockers have fewer metabolic side effects in diabetic patients; however, the tachycardia which serves as a warning sign for insulin-induced hypoglycemia may be masked. Therefore, beta-blockers are to be used cautiously in diabetics.

20) Retrospective studies, can determine cause and effect or not?

A prospective study watches for outcomes, such as the development of a disease, during the study period and relates this to other factors such as suspected risk or protection factor(s). The study usually involves taking a cohort of subjects and watching them over a long period. The outcome of interest should be common.

A retrospective study looks backwards and examines exposures to suspected risk or protection factors in relation to an outcome that is established at the start of the study. Many valuable case-control studies

Prospective investigation is required to make precise estimates of either the incidence of an outcome or the relative risk of an outcome based on exposure.

Case-Control studies are usually but not exclusively retrospective, the opposite is true for cohort studies.

Case-Control studies outcome is measured before exposure

Cohort studies are usually but not exclusively prospective, the opposite is true for case-control studies.

Cohort studies outcome is measured after exposure

21) FSH leads to spermatogenesis? LH leads to androgen production?

FSH leads to spermatogensis but LH leads to production of testosterone(an adrogen)

22) Does ionized mean protonated or unprotonated? Or does it depend if its an acid or a base?

yes..and yes.

23) Is Mg intra or extracellular? What about calcium?

Magnesium is intracelluar,along with Pottasium,phosphate,calicum.

24) Would you consider chlorthalidone, indapamide a thiazide diuretic? Would you consider thiazides as carbonic anyhydrase inhibitors?

I consider Chlorthalidone,i think indapamide is non-thiazide,Thiazides re not carbonic unhydrase inhibitors

25)25) Is vit a an antioxidant?

answer:Vitamine E,Vitamine C.

[salmansiddiqui]

Can someone please tell me how to calculate shelf life ,it's very confusing for me .

For e.g If half life of a drug is 20hrs when refrigrated,what will be the half life at room temperature.

 

Kindly help me solving this I know the formula but it's not understanable for me.

[salmansiddiqui]

Thanks in advance

[lorliw]

Thanks for the responses. Appreciate it . Someone asked if the responses were correct, but I can't really say. I found if I read about one of those subjects in one book or a Q+A test, it would say the exact opposite in another, hence the confusion.

As for shelf life, I believe there is the Arrenhius equation, but a much simpler generalization was mentioned in Manon theory, basically, for every 10 degree celcius rise in temp, the rxn rate doubles, (or sometimes triples). So if temp is 20 degrees, with a shelf life of 5 hrs, at 30 degrees it would be 2.5 hrs. The opposite holds true for decreasing temp. For example at 15 degrees the shelf life is 40 hrs, but at 5 degrees it is 80 hrs.

[salmansiddiqui]

lorliw

 

can you kindly tell me where it is mentioned in Mannan.I try to figure it out myself but if i am not wrong Alahmmed sent us a formula to workout this problm but i am still confused.Please help

 

Salman

[salmansiddiqui]

lorliw

correct ans for 2nd question is 10.30 minutes i don 't know how.

If you read question again it says the solution is unbuffered and both reacting species are consumed.

I ve tried but no use.

[lorliw]

Whoops! I made an error on your 2 nd calculation. I get 10.27 minutes when I read your question over again.

 

1 x (.001) divided by [ 1.082 x (.01)(.009)] should equal 10.3 rounded off.

 

.001

------ = 10.27

.00009732

 

.001 is the consuming concentration which you get by 0.01 (initial concn) minus the .009 (final concn)

 

Hope we get easier types of calculation questions!

 

The effects of temp on drug degradation is at the top of page 161 in the manon theory 2nd edition. ( Chap 25 kinetic principals and order or reactions). I had posted the same type of question, well the one from the blueprint quite some time ago, and was also given that answer. I believe someone else mentioned it as well on the december notes thread.

[salmansiddiqui]

Thanks lorliw for your help

[salmansiddiqui]

B-blockers can cause prolonged hypoglycemia and also mask hypoglycemic symptoms(CPR chapter 52).

 

Also sympathomimetics can potentially cause hypoglycemia.

[salmansiddiqui]

If someone knows answer of following please share

 

 

1. In a conjugated protein, a prosthetic group is:

A) a part of the protein that is not composed of amino acids.

B) a fibrous region of a globular protein.

C) a subunit of an oligomeric protein.

D) synonymous with "protomer."

E) a nonidentical subunit of a protein with many identical subunits.

 

2. In a mixture of the five proteins listed below, which should elute

second in size-exclusion (gel filtration) chromatography?

A) cytochrome c, Mr = 13,000

B) immunoglobulin G, Mr = 145,000

C) ribonuclease A, Mr = 13,700

D) RNA polymerase, Mr = 450,000

E) serum albumin, Mr = 68,500

3. The functional differences, as well as differences in threedimensional

structure, between two different enzymes from E. coli

result directly from their different:

A) roles in DNA metabolism.

B) amino acid sequences.

C) secondary structures.

D) roles in the metabolism of E. coli.

4. Even when a gene is available and its sequence of nucleotides is

known, chemical studies of the protein are still required to

determine:

A) the location of disulfide bonds.

B) the number of amino acids in the protein.

C) the amino-terminal amino acid.

D) molecular weight of the protein.

E) whether the protein has the amino acid methionine in its sequence.

5. A biochemist is attempting to separate a DNA-binding protein

(protein X) from other proteins in a solution. Only three other

proteins (A, B, and C) are present. The proteins have the following

properties:

pI (isoelectric size bind to

point) Mr DNA?

-------------------------------------------------------------

protein A 7.4 82,000 yes

protein B 3.8 21,500 yes

protein C 7.9 23,000 no

protein X 7.8 22,000 yes

-------------------------------------------------------------

What type of protein separation techniques might she use to

separate: (a) protein X from protein A? (b) protein X from protein

B? © protein X from protein C?

 

6. Define the primary structure of a protein.

7. A polypeptide is hydrolyzed, and it is determined that there are 3

Lys residues and 2 Arg residues (as well as other residues). How

many peptide fragments can be expected when the native polypeptide

is incubated with the proteolytic enzyme trypsin?

8. The four peptides below resulted from fragmenting a larger

polypeptide. Each of the four fragments was separated and

sequenced. Determine the sequence of the original polypeptide.

Fragment 1 IKGGPM

Fragment 2 GAAWHDFIPRGA

Fragment 3 QCVHGA

Fragment 4 IPRGAALIKGG

9. All of the following are considered "weak" interactions in proteins

except:

A) van der Waals forces.

B) hydrogen bonds.

C) ionic bonds.

D) peptide bonds.

E) hydrophobic interactions.

10. In an aqueous solution, protein conformation is determined by two

major factors. One is the formation of the maximum number of

hydrogen bonds. The other is the:

A) formation of the maximum number of hydrophilic interactions.

B) maximization of ionic interactions.

C) minimization of entropy by the formation of a water solvent shell

around the protein.

D) placement of polar amino acid residues around the exterior of the

protein.

E) placement of hydrophobic amino acid residues within the interior of

the protein.

11. Which of the following best represents the backbone arrangement of

two peptide bonds?

A) Ca-N-Ca-C-Ca-N-Ca-C

B) Ca-N-C-C-N-Ca

C) C-N-Ca-Ca-C-N

D) Ca-C-N-Ca-C-N

E) Ca-Ca-C-N-Ca-Ca-C

12. Which of the following groups correctly shows intrachain hydrogen

bonding ||| in an à helix?

A) -N-H|||H-NB)

-C=O|||H-CC)

-C=O|||H-ND)

-N-H|||H-RE)

-C=O|||O=C-

13. Thr and/or Leu residues tend to disrupt an à helix when they occur

next to each other in a protein because:

A) of electrostatic repulsion between the Thr and/or Leu side chains.

B) both amino acids are highly hydrophobic.

C) the R group of neither amino acid can form a hydrogen bond.

D) of steric hindrance between the bulky Thr and/or Leu side chains.

E) of the possible covalent interactions between the Thr and/or Leu

side chains.

14. An average protein will not be denatured by:

A) sodium dodecyl sulfate.

B) pH 10.

C) heating to 90°C.

D) urea.

E) iodoacetic acid.

15. Determination of the precise spacing of atoms within a large protein

is possible only through the use of:

A) a Ramachandran plot.

B) molecular model building.

C) x-ray diffraction.

D) light microscopy.

E) electron microscopy.

16. Which of the following statements about oligomeric proteins is

false?

A) All subunits must be identical.

B) Some subunits may have nonprotein prosthetic groups.

C) A subunit may be very similar to other proteins.

D) Some oligomeric proteins can further associate into large fibers.

E) Subunits can exist in dozens or even hundreds of genetic variations.

17. The major driving forces involved with the formation of very large

multiunit protein complexes, for example the protein capsid of a

virus, are:

A) free energies of hydrolysis of such molecules as ATP and GTP.

B) the same weak, noncovalent interactions that determine the native

conformation of a single polypeptide.

C) the free energies of binding by small ligands.

D) entropy increases resulting from the formation of many new peptide

bonds.

E) entropy decreases resulting from the formation of symmetric

crystalline shapes, for example, icosahedrons.

18. Describe briefly what is meant by primary, secondary, tertiary, and

quaternary protein structure.

19. Any given protein is characterized by a unique primary structure and

tertiary structure. Define primary and tertiary structure and

describe very briefly how they are related in proteins.

20. How do disulfide bridges contribute to a protein's native

conformation?

21. Describe three of the important features of a á-pleated sheet

polypeptide structure. Provide one or two sentences for each

feature.

22. Explain (succinctly) the theoretical and/or experimental arguments

in support of this statement: "The primary sequence of a protein

determines its three-dimensional shape and thus its function."

23. When hemoglobin crystals prepared in the absence of oxygen are

exposed to oxygen, they shatter. Why, in molecular terms?

24. In many organisms, one of the enzymes required for glycolysis,

aldolase, requires Zn2+ to catalyze the isomerization of

dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. Under

conditions of zinc deficiency, when the enzyme may lack zinc, it

would be referred to as the aldolase:

A) holoenzyme.

B) prosthetic group.

C) apoenzyme.

D) coenzyme.

E) substrate.

25. Which of the following statements is true of enzyme catalysts?

A) To be effective, they must be present at the same concentration as

their substrate.

B) They can increase the equilibrium constant for a given reaction by a

thousand-fold or more.

C) They lower the activation energy for conversion of substrate to

product.

D) Their catalytic activity is independent of pH.

E) They are generally equally active on D and L isomers of a given

substrate.

26. Which of the following kinetic parameters remains the same

for S --> P, whether the reaction is enzyme-catalyzed or

uncatalyzed?

A) k

B) V

C) V0

D) Keq'

27. The steady state assumption, as applied to enzyme kinetics, implies:

A) Km = Ks.

B) the maximum velocity occurs when the enzyme is saturated.

C) the ES complex is formed and broken down at equivalent rates.

D) the Km is equivalent to the cellular substrate concentration.

E) the enzyme is regulated.

28. To calculate the turnover number of an enzyme you need to know the:

A) initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at low .

B) initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at >> Km.

C) Km for the substrate.

D) enzyme concentration.

E) both B and D.

29. Michaelis and Menten assumed that the overall reaction for an

enzyme-catalyzed reaction could be written as

k1 k2

E + S ----> ES ----> P

k-1

Using this reaction, the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate

complex can be described by the expression:

A) k1([Et] - [ES]).

B) k-1[ES] + k2[ES].

C) k2[ES].

D) k-1[ES].

E) k1([Et] - [ES]).

30. Which of the following statements about a plot of V0 vs. for an

enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics is false?

A) Km is the at which V0 = 1/2 Vmax.

B) the shape of the curve is a hyperbola.

C) the y-axis is a rate term with units of mm/min.

D) as increases, the initial velocity of reaction, V0 , also

increases.

E) at very high , the velocity curve becomes superimposed on a

horizontal line which intersects the y-axis at Vmax.

31. Allosteric enzymes:

A) usually have only one active site.

B) are regulated primarily by covalent modification.

C) usually have more than one polypeptide chain.

D) usually show strict Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

E) usually catalyze several different reactions within a metabolic

pathway.

32. What is the difference between an enzyme "cofactor" and an enzyme

"coenzyme"?

33. For a reaction that can take place with or without catalysis by an

enzyme, what would be the effect of the enzyme on the:

(a) standard free energy change of the reaction?

(b) activation energy of the reaction?

© initial velocity of the reaction?

(d) equiibrium constant of the reaction?

34. Give the Michaelis-Menten equation and define each term in it. Does

this equation apply to all enzymes? If not, to which kind does it

not apply?

35. Methanol (wood alcohol) is highly toxic because it is converted to

formaldehyde in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme alcohol

dehydrogenase:

NAD+ + methanol ---> NADH + H+ + formaldehyde

Part of the medical treatment for methanol poisoning is to

administer ethanol (ethyl alcohol) in amounts large enough to cause

intoxication under normal circumstances. Explain this in terms of

what you know about enzyme mechanisms.

36. Why does pH affect the activity of an enzyme?

[canadian in florida]

Salamsiddiqi: Where are those questions from?

[salmansiddiqui]

Few weeks back one of my friend sent me.Actually she recently passed APEC first part(australian pharmacy).

 

But i am not in contact with her so unable to find exact answers.

[salmansiddiqui]

One of my friend recently passed APEC PART 1,she sent me.I am unable to contact her as i ve lost her contact.

[fpgeelady]

i think most of these questions are deep and i heard that the exam depend on how much you understand the basics...so dont go deep..just revise the important notes you have:hmm: