Hi,
I was not exactly convinced with the explaination in OG11 for this question. It says that statement 2 by itself is sufficient to answer the question. Here is the question and why I thought that 1 & 2 together answer the question. Will appreciate it if someone could point out the error in my logic.
Thanks.
If the integer n is greater than 1, is n equal to 2?
(1) n has exactly 2 positive factors.
(2) The difference of any 2 distinct positive factors of n is odd.
Ans:
n > 1, is n = 2?
(1) means n is a prime number. However it could be any prime. Insufficient.
(2) if n = 6, 3-2 = 1 Odd.
if n = 2, 2-1 = 1 Odd.
So this seems Insufficent too.
(3) Both together - if n is a prime and difference of any 2 distinct positive factors of n is odd then n has to be 2. Since the difference between distinct positive factors of primes greater than 2 is even. Therefore the answer must be C.