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Well for the rest of you who donot know here is what I have proved. GMATPrep software is only for Windows XP. You can install it, use it and then uninstall it, remove the directory and reinstall the software. Hence would be able to use it again. But if you happen to have windows Vista which is common on most newer laptops, you are out of luck. Although you will get warnings that GMATPrep is not compatible with Vista, you will be able to install and use it. But here's the catch only 2 ! tests thats it.. You cannot repeat it, so those of you who will be trying GMATPrep on their Vista PC be sure that you are ready to try GMATPRep as you will not be able to repeat them. I have another pc running XP so I had to install the oftware on it to reuse it.

OG 11 refers to Official guide from GMAT version 11.. This book is a must have. If you have not prepared using this book then no wonder you lost your previous two attempts. Get this book and study it cover to cover. You'll do good next time.

I like krovvidy method..makes goood sense. and yes 135 is the answer

Doesn't work even after uninstalling , making sure no old directories exist and even checking registry for any remnants. On reinstall both tests show status "complete". !!! I think GMAT guys have done something that ppl cannot use it more than twice.

I got it so far that I understand the sequence HHHTT. Also how HHH = 1/2*1/2*1/2 but how did you get the TT = (1-1/2)*1/2 Please help me understand it.

OA is E (1/32) can you explain in detail how you got it?

OA is D..2/5 Total possible combiations are 5..out of that only 2 are fav. hence 2/5. pretty simple right..I couldn'y get it in 2 minutes.

In a meeting 3 reps from each of 6 companies shook hands with every person not from his or her own company. How many handshakes took place. A. 45 B. 135 C. 144 D. 270 E. 288

If a coin is fliped, the probability that the coin will land heads is 1/2. If the coin is flipped 5 times, what is the probability that it will land heads up on the first 3 flips and not on the last 2 flips. A. 3/5 B. 1/2 C. 1/5 D. 1/8 E. 1/32

Six cards numbered from 1 to 6 are placed in an empty bowl. First one is drawn and then put back into the bowl; then a second card is drawn. If the cards are drawn at random and if the sum of numbers on the cards is 8 then what is the probability that one of the two cards drawn is numbered 5? A. 1/6 B. 1/5 C. 1/3 D. 2/5 E. 2/3

Well what else I could do. I have the sets so looked up the picture and tried to draw it here. The main point to ask here the question needs alot of calculations to comeup to the answer. Is it symetrical to for GMAT questions. Remember you should be able to do a question in 2 minutes. 1000 Sets have many questions like that which take good 3 to 4 minutes to complete them.

The point you are missing is that the question is asking "what is the probability that they will both are not blue?". This means that a single blue out of the 2 drawn will be contrary to the question. Hence you have to get the probability of picking non blue cards. So, total fav. to pick non blue will be 6C2. 6 since there are 6 total non blue cards. Total events remain as 8C2. hope that helps.

Anyone ???

the picture looks like this '''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''. E B __________ C ..|..................| ..|..................| ..|..................| ..|..................| A ------------- D hope that will help

good news because I also got the answer by just looking at different combinations to see which one will fit the conditions.