Recent research has drawn a distinction between manic-depression, which involves intense highs and intense lows, and ''bipolar disorder type II", in which the manic highs, though present, are not of the same intensity as those exhibited in manic-depressives.
A. and ''bipolar disorder type II", in which the manic highs, though present, are not of the same intensity as those exhibited in
B. from "bipolar disorder type II", where the manic highs, though present, do not have the same intense nature as exhibited by
C. and "bipolar disorder type II", which exhibits highs which , though present, are of much less intensity than such as the ones exhibited in
D. and "bipolar disorder type II", for whom the manic highs are present, though not to the same extent as the highs exhibited in
E. from "bipolar disorder type II", where manic highs have an equal presence, but do not exhibit the intensity of the highs exhibited through the behavior of
I know it might sound very simple to most of you but just need some explanation here.
OA to follow